Genuine question because I can’t work it out - if the satellite services are used when the user has no network service, how can “carrier fees may still apply” work? Surely the absence of a carrier network signal and the use of satellite services means that you’re not using the carrier’s network, so how can they apply a charge?
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Some carriers, like T-Mobile are penning a deal with starlink. It could also be that the satellite company sends the bill to your carrier, and they bill you.
Makes sense, thanks
